Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 11 Jul, 2014 05:22 PM
what i know is that i'm a single mom, i have full custody of my daughter and my daughter's biological father is already living with a new wife who also happened to be a non believer, and don't care about at least his daughter, so.. do you think i passed a single parent category!?:ROFL:
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 16 Jul, 2014 04:13 AM
It certainly sounds like single parenting, however for dating purposes you're technically still married and unavailable until divorce or it's equivalent are finalised, and then you can change your status to divorced. Also whilst your daughter's father may not be interested at the moment, that doesn't mean he always won't be.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 6 Aug, 2014 12:12 PM
So sorry to hear of your predicament.You are not alone in this matter since it is very common to see this kind of thing happen in the Phillipines .The law there establishes a marriage as binding and cannot be annuled.
Now that being said ,there are certain loopholes to get around this ..but are very costly and usually take anywhere between 2 and 5 years to finally get the result you are looking for,wich is to be divorced legally or better said annuled...since the term divorced does not apply in that country. I t is the only place on earth that does not let people get divorced legally for a range of reasons including Adultery..Neglect ..abuse and so on and so on.
Basically the only options are to submit for a legal separation (wich keeps you married still)just so you can live separated from the abuser or have enough money to go thru the goverments process and see.Still it wont give any guarantees that it will be annuled. All I can say is that there are many good Men and Women trapped with these abusive spouses do to these laws in the Phillipines.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 6 Aug, 2014 12:12 PM
So sorry to hear of your predicament.You are not alone in this matter since it is very common to see this kind of thing happen in the Phillipines .The law there establishes a marriage as binding and cannot be annuled.
Now that being said ,there are certain loopholes to get around this ..but are very costly and usually take anywhere between 2 and 5 years to finally get the result you are looking for,wich is to be divorced legally or better said annuled...since the term divorced does not apply in that country. I t is the only place on earth that does not let people get divorced legally for a range of reasons including Adultery..Neglect ..abuse and so on and so on.
Basically the only options are to submit for a legal separation (wich keeps you married still)just so you can live separated from the abuser or have enough money to go thru the goverments process and see.Still it wont give any guarantees that it will be annuled. All I can say is that there are many good Men and Women trapped with these abusive spouses do to these laws in the Phillipines.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 15 Sep, 2015 09:17 AM
Yes you are 100% a single parent. :glow:
Be strong . Forget the father of your child who betrayed you- his loss . Raise your child well. You are blessed that you have the custody of your child.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 13 May, 2016 10:21 AM
You are what God says you are, not what the world says you are.
1 Corinthians 7:10-11. His wife, even after a divorce. If you marry another, God says this: �Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery." Luke 16:18 Nothing you read anywhere else in the bible contradicts this, in spite of what you may have been told or lead to believe. The unclear verses where you think they say something that contradicts, are just that, unclear, and misunderstood. The ONLY exception is for the Joseph and Mary situation, where the marriage has not been consummated, as Jesus described in Matthew 19. Joseph could have divorced Mary because they had not consummated the marriage. Once consummated, it is until death you do part. This is abundantly clear in the Greek language, but English translations abuse the Greek and mislead people. The Matthew 5 exception is about what the husband causes, that is to say, whether or not he is at fault; not what happens or is allowed.
You committed before Almighty God to marriage until death you do part. That is when you are free to marry.
"My brethren, let not many of you become teachers, knowing that we shall receive a stricter judgment." James 3:1 Disregard any advice you receive that contradicts scripture.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 25 May, 2016 09:21 AM
Go to Focus on the Family website, click on the link for their radio broadcast and listen to the messages from May 24 and May 25, 2016, particularly May 25 message. The advice given is Biblical and relevant, in my opinion.
Does a separated not yet annuled (since divorce is not allowed in Philippines) can be considered as single parent?
Posted : 25 May, 2016 10:15 PM
Nothing said by man will ever overrule what Almighty God has said in His holy word.
God is crystal clear.
"My brethren, let not many of you become teachers, knowing that we shall receive a stricter judgment." JAMES 3:1
THE MYTH OF THE 3 PERMISSIONS
The first thing you must decide in your heart is, Does God lie? Will He tell you one thing in one place, and contradict what He says in the one place, by saying something opposing to it in another? Obviously, God does not lie, and every word He gives us, every command, is an expression of His love to protect us from harm we cannot fully see or understand. When He says you shall not _____________ (fill in the blank), it is because it is an unholy thing, it is harmful to the person who does it, harmful to those around the person who does it, and God in His love, is trying to protect everyone from that harm. God�s ten commandments are God's Ten Loving Blessings To Keep Us From Harm. The next thing we need to understand is that there are different target audiences in the various writings of scriptures. We need to make sure we know what constitutes the target audience, and the purpose(s) for God sending them the message He sent in the way He sent it.
What Is The Correct Way To Approach Interpretation of God's Word?
When it comes to interpretation of a verse or a passage, one must ALWAYS read the bible so that it never contradicts itself. We cannot interpret a verse or passage with multiple possible meanings so as to cause it to be in direct conflict with another which has only one possible meaning. LUKE 16:18 can only be read one way, without any exceptions. Where one verse (such as LUKE 16:18), or passage is clear and unambiguous, and another can be interpreted multiple ways, we MUST exclude any reading or interpretation of the verse or passage which causes it to be in conflict with other passages which can only be read one way. Any interpretation which causes the verses or passages to come in conflict is an illegitimate interpretation.
Also, we have to understand the culture of the target audience. Matthew was written to the Jews who had this special year long betrothal period, where the husband and his bride were considered married, but they did not consummate the marriage until the year had passed. This year long betrothal period must be taken into account when comparing statements about divorce and remarriage from Matthew with scripture directed at different cultures. To fail to note the differences in the cultures and their marriage rituals is fatal to a correct understanding of God's word and His intentions with regard to this particular subject matter. Mark was written to the Romans, who had no betrothal period. Luke was written to the Greeks, who also had no betrothal period. What is said in Matthew does not contradict what is said in Mark or Luke, nor does it modify either of them in any way. Any reading of the Matthew passages must be consistent with the reading of the crystal clear statements in Mark and Luke.
The verse in Luke 16 stands alone. Different topics are on both sides of this verse. It is not contradicted by any other verse in the bible, or God would have to contradict Himself, and be a liar. But we know that God does not lie. If there were exceptions available to the Greeks and God did not say them there, then God would be misleading people, and therefore God would be lying. However, there are no exceptions available there, once the marriage is consummated in the Roman and Greek cultures. If anyone divorces and marries another, they commit adultery, so says God to the Greeks and the Romans. If your spouse divorces you, and someone marries you, that person commits adultery, and therefore you commit adultery. By stating this truth under slightly different scenarios to the various people groups represented in the different gospels of the scripture, God covered all of the possible ways to express the relationships in a divorce and remarry.
LUKE 16:18
�Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery." (NO EXCEPTION) This is the most succinct statement on the issue of remarriage following divorce in all of scripture. This verse stands alone in the chapter. It is concise, and it is unambiguous. Whatever you read any place else in scripture must be read to be consistent with this no exceptions statement. There are no exceptions and no one, to the best of my knowledge, has ever come forward to challenge the validity of this stand alone verse. That is to say, I've never heard anyone suggest this verse is not part of the original text.
MARK 10:2-12
"The Pharisees came and asked Him, �Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?� testing Him. And He answered and said to them, �What did Moses command you?� They said, �Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.� And Jesus answered and said to them, �Because of the hardness of your heart (SIN) he wrote you this precept. BUT from the beginning of the creation, God �made them male and female.� �For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, 8 and the two shall become one flesh�; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.�" (To paraphrase Jesus: NOT! You folks got it all wrong. Ain't what Dad said, (Who is Moses to overrule Father?) And ain�t what Dad intended either. So just stop it!) In the house His disciples also asked Him again about the same matter. So He said to them, �Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.�" (no exception) Let me throw some light on the disciples reaction from Matthew 19 which is not mentioned in Mark.
MATTHEW 19:10-12
�His disciples said to Him, �If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.� But He said to them, �All cannot accept this saying, but only those to whom it has been given: For there are eunuchs who were born thus from their mother�s womb, and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven�s sake. He who is able to accept it, let him accept it.�� They FREAKED OUT, and said, whoa, if you can�t get a divorce, nobody get married cause you're locked in for life. And Jesus said, well, yeah, but very few will get it. Again, between the statements in two passages, Luke 16, and Mark 10; it says that whether you are the person who asked for the divorce, or the one against whom it was obtained, if anyone marries a divorced person, in either case, they commit adultery. Now, is Almighty God lying here in these two passages, or has He told the truth? Because if the exceptions you think there are, are there, but God has not disclosed them to the Greeks and the Romans, then He has misrepresented the whole truth to them, because He has willfully made it appear that there are no exceptions, (if what you say is true), and God is found to be a liar. What is said in Matthew 19 mirrors what is said in Mark 10, with the inclusion of the exception clause which was written to the Jews, because of their unique marriage rituals. I will address Matthew 19 further towards the end.
What does God require of the person who obtains a divorce?
1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11 NKJV
"Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife."
1. According to these two verses, 1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11, does it matter why a woman departs from her husband? yes no
2. Does the command in these two verses, to remain alone or be reconciled, apply to men as well as women? yes no
3. Are there any exceptions to the command to stay unmarried or be reconciled contained WITHIN these two verses? yes no
4. If God expects the one who went after the divorce to stay alone or be reconciled, what does this mean for the person who is left by the one who departs?
4. (a) In these two verses, are the ones who are left, whose spouse departed from them, also supposed to look towards reconciliation or remain unmarried? yes no
5. Within these two verses alone, is there an absolute prohibition against the one who obtains the divorce from marrying another person while their husband/wife remains alive? yes no
6. Does God ever contradict Himself, by saying one thing in one place, and something contradictory somewhere else? yes no
7. Does the Holy Spirit lead people to contradict a command in the holy bible? yes no
7. (a) If someone is being lead to do something which violates a command of the holy scripture, are they being lead by the Holy Spirit; that is to say, is it the Holy Spirit who is leading them to violate that command? yes no
8. Does "the truth" set you free (JOHN 8:31), or is it just a tool of mean spirited people who want to spoil your fun?
9. Have you ever told someone they shouldn't do something wrong before they did it, because you knew from God's word that He didn't approve of such conduct? yes no
10. If yes, were you sinning or just being mean spirited just because you gave them a warning to obey God and His word? yes no
11. For those who have children, when you set boundaries, and tell them they can't do certain things; do you set those boundaries because you hate them and want to hurt them; because you love them and want to protect them from harm they do not fully understand, or for some other reason?
12. Has God changed His mind about the commands in these two verses because we live in a different culture? yes no
13. Is there any expiration date on the command to remain unmarried or reconcile with your spouse? yes no
14. How does ECCLESIASTES 5:1-7 inform your understanding of what God requires of someone who is intending to get married, as it relates to 1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11?
"Walk prudently when you go to the house of God; and draw near to hear rather than to give the sacrifice of fools, for they do not know that they do evil. Do not be rash with your mouth, And let not your heart utter anything hastily before God. For God is in heaven, and you on earth; Therefore let your words be few. For a dream comes through much activity, And a fool�s voice is known by his many words. When you make a vow to God, do not delay to pay it; For He has no pleasure in fools. Pay what you have vowed�Better not to vow than to vow and not pay. Do not let your mouth cause your flesh to sin, nor say before the messenger of God that it was an error. Why should God be angry at your excuse and destroy the work of your hands? For in the multitude of dreams and many words there is also vanity. But you fear God."
1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11 - "Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife." Even after a divorce, God still identifies the man as �HER HUSBAND�, which makes her still HIS WIFE.
EXODUS 20:17 �you shall not covet your neighbor�s wife (husband)�.
Can we agree that Almighty God has given a crystal clear, no way to read it any other way command that if you are the one who goes to court and gets a divorce, you are only allowed by God, two options?
Option A Stay unmarried.
Option B Reconcile/remarry your husband/wife.
And can we agree that this is not just a command for women, but it is also intended for men? Now logically, if God intends that the person who obtains a divorce should remain open and available to remarriage to their ex, doesn't it necessitate that the one put away also remain available for remarriage to the ex? Or is God going to say to one, hold yourself available for remarriage, but to the other say, you go run along and do whatever you want? Is that the nature
of God, to give conflicting direction to people? And where is there an exception to this statement in this passage? Where does it say that the person put away doesn't need to stay available for remarriage? Such a concept would have to be read that into the text, because it is not stated, and it is inconsistent with the main intent of the two verses, that there be reconciliation; preferably before a divorce, but if not, after the divorce. In case anyone has a problem with my use of the word command in the age of grace, New Testament era, allow me to share with you from 1 JOHN 2.
"My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world. Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. He who says, �I know Him,� and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked." If one reads the full chapter, and indeed, the whole of 1 John, it is without dispute that the New Testament confirms that new commands were given for the age of grace, and old commands were reiterated for us to follow.
God's Tolerance of Divorce is NOT the same thing as Permission to Marry Another. The 1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11 command stands without exception, without an expiration date, and regardless of the reason for a divorce. See also LUKE 16:18, and MARK 10:1-12.
THE MYTH OF PERMISSION GIVEN TO MARRY SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE EX, BASED UPON THE 3 EXCEPTIONS
The issues in the various texts, are the marked distinction between fornication/sexual immorality and marital adultery; the relationship of the various parties, i.e. the one who obtained the divorce, the one against whom the divorce was obtained, or a third party; and the timing involved. This was the situation Joseph contemplated with regard to Mary. MATTHEW 1:18-21 They had been betrothed, and were considered husband and wife, but the consummation of the marriage had not occurred, and would not occur until, as it says in MATTHEW 1:24-25, after Jesus was born.
MATTHEW 1:24-25.
�Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife, and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus.�
The Jews, and only the Jews, (with regard to the target audiences of the 3 gospels, Matthew, Mark and Luke); had a betrothal period of 1 year, where the couple was considered married, but the marriage was not consummated. If the woman was found to have committed PORNEIA and the husband divorced her, he was not causing her to commit MOXITAI. If she had not committed PORNEIA and the husband divorced her, he would be causing her to commit MOXITAi because the divorce would have been illegitimate, and they would still be bound together in the eyes of God.
MYTH #1
MATTHEW 5:31-32 Because Moses commanded people to document the divorce. there is an exception available which allows you to remarry after divorce without committing adultery. WRONG!
�Furthermore it has been said,
�Whoever divorces his wife,
let him give her a certificate of divorce.�
�But I say to you that
whoever divorces his wife FOR ANY REASON EXCEPT sexual immorality PORNEIA
causes her to commit adultery MOXITAI;
AND
whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery MOXITAI."
Let�s restate the exception:
Whoever divorces his wife for PORNEIA - sexual immorality
does not causes her to commit MOXITAI - (marital) adultery;
In all other cases, or if he divorces her for any other reason, he does cause the adultery MOXITAI. The exception doesn�t mean it doesn�t happen, it just indicates whether or not the husband is the cause. The exception addresses the question of what the man causes, and under what circumstances. The exception is the lone reason he does not cause her to commit marital adultery MOXITAI. That is to say, for all other reasons, he causes the wife he puts away to commit adultery. The exception is when she already defiled herself, by committing PORNEIA. Then it is not on him, it is on her. That is the exception. It is a strong warning to the man to not casually put away their wife;, he has the grave responsibility of their wife's sin any time they cause their wife to sin. If he puts her away for any reason other than her sexual sin prior to the time of the consummation of their marriage, he will bear the blame. Nothing in this verse says that a person who is in a marriage which has been consummated can get a divorce, marry another person, and not commit adultery.
From: Blue Letter Bible blueletterbible.org Textus Receptus, Bible Gateway biblegateway.com 1894 Scrivener New Testament
But g1161 de
I g1473 ego
say g3004 lego
to you, g5213 hymin
That g3754 hoti
whoever g3739 hos
g302 an
divorces g630 apolyo
his g846 autos
wife, g1135 gyn�
for any reason g3056 logos
8except g3924 parektos
sexual immorality g4202 porneia sex before consummation of the marriage
causes g4160 poieo
her g846 auten
to commit adultery: g3429 moichao sex outside of marriage, after consummation of the marriage
and g2532 kai
whosoever g3739 hos
g1437 ean
marries g1060 gamese
her that is divorced g630 apolyen
commits adultery. g3429 moichao
MYTH #2
MATTHEW 19:9 teaches that a man can divorce his wife for marital adultery (and other reasons besides sexual immorality), marry another, and not commit adultery. WRONG!
�And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.�
Again, let�s restate it for clarity.
�And I say to you, Whoever divorces his wife, for any reason besides sexual immorality PORNEIA, and marries another, commits adultery MOXITAI.
However, if she had already committed sexual immorality PORNEIA, and he divorced her for that reason, he would not be guilty of committing adultery MOIXITAI if he married another,
AND, (something separate but also true follows)
whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery MOXITAI (NO EXCEPTION).�
Similar to Matthew 5 where the exception there addresses the question of what the man causes related to his wife, in the MATTHEW 19 passage, it is a question of what happens with regard to the man when the man who divorces his wife marries another. In the case where he divorces her without her being guilty of PORNEIA - (sexual immorality/fornication), prior to the consummation of the marriage, he commits adultery. But if she has committed sexual immorality/fornication PORNEIA, and NOT adultery MOXITAI, and she has been put away for that reason, he does not commit adultery MOXITAI if he marries another. The exception is whether or not the man commits marital adultery MOXITAI, and it is based upon whether or not she had committed PORNEIA, AND, whether or not he had put her away for that reason. If he divorces her for any other reason than her having committed PORNEIA and marries another, then he commits MOXITAI - marital adultery. Then his adultery MOXITAI is on him, and it is not on her. That is the exception from Matthew 19. Like Matthew 5, it is a strong warning to men to not casually put away their wife, for they are saddled with the responsibility of their own sin any time they divorce their wife for any reason other than PORNEIA. PORNEIA and MOXITAI are distinctly different words with very different implications and consequences for each action. This is not mere semantics. There is a very real difference, one compared to the other. If the man doesn�t like the way she looks, because she steals, because she set his hair on fire, or any other reason than her PORNEIA prior to the consummation of their marriage, he commits adultery when he divorces her and marries another. And do not lose sight of the fact that this passage also has to be read in such a way as to be in complete agreement with 1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11, LUKE 16:18, and MARK 10:1-12.
MATTHEW 19:9 Textus Receptus, 1894 Scrivener New Testament
And g1161 de
I say g3004 lego
unto you, g5213 hymin
g3754 hoti
Whosoever g3739 hos
g302 an
shall put away g630 apolyo
his g846 autos
wife, g1135 gyn‘
except g1508 ei m‘
it be for g1909 epi
fornication, g4202 porneia
and g2532 kai
shall marry g1060 game
another, g243 allos
committeth adultery: g3429 moichao
10and g2532 kai
whoso marrieth g1060 gameo
her which g3588 ho
is put away g630 apolyo
doth commit adultery. g3429 moichao
MYTH #3
1 CORINTHIANS 7:15 - When it says God has called someone to peace in this verse, God is giving such individual permission to marry another after they have been put away by an unbelieving spouse, and they won't be committing adultery. WRONG!
"But if the unbeliever departs, let him depart; a brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases. But God has called us to peace."
Many people use this verse to justify teaching that people can marry another if their unbelieving spouse departs without committing adultery. What they fail to realize, is that later in the same chapter, if you keep reading, you see the subject matter change, and Paul describes what happens when you marry.
1 CORINTHIANS 7:25-28
"Now concerning virgins: I have no commandment from the Lord; yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy. I suppose therefore that this is good because of the present distress�that it is good for a man to remain as he is: Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Nevertheless such will have trouble in the flesh, but I would spare you."
So it is no longer the believer who was put away by he unbelieving spouse to whom Paul is speaking, but now Paul is talking to virgins, those who have never been married, and he cautions them. When one marries, they get trouble in the flesh. I have never heard of peace being equated to trouble in the flesh anywhere, in any context, outside of this twisted attempt of some to say that God calling a person to peace is a pass to marry a person other than the spouse from which you are divorced. If God was/is granting anyone peace, it didn't/doesn't include new trouble in the flesh. Such a reading of this text, that peace includes permission to marry without committing adultery, flies in the face of the entire body of scripture. The Lord says it is a grave thing to teach wrong doctrine, and I urge you to caution, for if you cause others to stumble because of your wrong teaching, the Lord will require it of you.
"Study to show yourself approved unto God, a workman that does not need to be ashamed, RIGHTLY dividing the word of truth." - Almighty God
THE THREE TAKEAWAYS
1. Do not divorce. MATTHEW 19:6,8
2. If you do divorce, do not marry anyone other than your spouse, unless and until your spouse dies, or remarry your spouse. 1 CORINTHIANS 7:10-11,39 ROMANS 7:2
3. If you marry someone other than your spouse while they are alive, you commit adultery. LUKE 16:18 MARK 10:1-12, MATTHEW 5:32, 19:9
