God imposed his wrath due unto, and Christ underwent the pains of hell for,
A. either all the sins of all men,
B. or all the sins of some men,
C. or some sins of all men.
If C, some sins of all men, then have all men some sins to answer for, and so shall no man be saved; for if God entered into judgment with us, though it were with all mankind for one sin, no flesh should be justified in his sight: �If the LORD should mark iniquities, who should stand?� Ps. cxxx. 2. We might all go to cast all that we have �to the moles and to the bats, to go into the clefts of the rocks, and into the tops of the ragged rocks, for fear of the Lord, and for the glory of his majesty,� Isa. ii. 20, 21.
If B, that is it which we affirm, that Christ in their stead and room Suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the world.
If A, why then, are not all freed from the punishment of all their sins?
You will say, �Because of their unbelief; they will not believe.�
But this unbelief, is it a sin, or not?
If not, why should they be punished for it? If it be, then Christ underwent the punishment due to it, or not.
If so, then why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which he died from partaking of the fruit of his death?
If he did not, then did he not die for all their sins. Let them choose which part they will." http://www.the-highway.com/Death_Owen.html
I'm talking about what the word says. Not all opinions are based in truth. Some have studied the word more on certain issues than others. I have not seen a scriptural defense against the doctrines of grace.
Your stand is of men's opinion when you can accept the word of God as truth then your life will start.
You can not believe God and deny this truth. And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
19 And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.
20 For every one that doeth evil hateth the light, neither cometh to the light, lest his deeds should be reproved.
You go to one verse every time because no other verse even hints at what you believe. I've shown numerous times why John 3:16 doesn't hint at it either. You do not respond to my refutations, which shows you believe what you want to believe and do not truly desire to understand what the word teaches. The issue is we cannot fashion God into what we think he should be so that we can call him fair. He decides what is fair and has clearly shown in scripture that He dies for a certain people.
John 3:16 says God sent his son so that everyone believing would have life. It never says everyone has the ability to believe. It never says He was sent for all. You have not been able to refute this.
The world - All mankind. It does not mean any particular part of the world, but man as man - the race that had rebelled and that deserved to die. See John 6:33; John 17:21. His love for the world, or for all mankind, in giving his Son, was shown by these circumstances:
1. All the world was in ruin, and exposed to the wrath of God.
2. All people were in a hopeless condition.
3. God gave his Son. Man had no claim on him; it was a gift - an undeserved gift.
4. He gave him up to extreme sufferings, even the bitter pains of death on the cross.
5. It was for all the world. He tasted "death for every man," Hebrews 2:9. He "died for all," 2 Corinthians 5:15. "He is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world," 1 John 2:2.
That he gave - It was a free and unmerited gift. Man had no claim: and when there was no eye to pity or arm to save, it pleased God to give his Son into the hands of men to die in their stead, Galatians 1:4; Romans 8:32; Luke 22:19. It was the mere movement of love; the expression of eternal compassion, and of a desire, that sinners should not perish forever.
His only-begotten Son - See the notes at John 1:14. This is the highest expression of love of which we can conceive. A parent who should give up his only son to die for others who are guilty if this could or might be done - would show higher love than could be manifested in any other way. So it shows the depth of the love of God, that he was willing. to give his only Son into the hands of sinful men that he might be slain, and thus redeem them from eternal sorrow.
The problem is, none of the verses you posted state that he died for everyone everywhere. Not only for ours(Jews) but for the whole world(every tribe and tongue). One cannot deny that world is used to mean several different things in scriptures so context determines the meaning. We cannot just say it means all men everywhere when context doesn't allow for that interpretation.
"He is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world," 1 John 2:2."
You would agree we interpret scripture by scripture correct? I'm going to use scripture to interpret 1 John 2:2 for you...John 11:52-52 is a direct parallel to the verse you have provided. Okay now watch this..."51 He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for the nation only, but also to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad"...World here has been defined for you. He prophesied that Jesus was die not only for the Jews who believed, for the Gentiles as well. These verses do not teach that Jesus died for the whole world, but rather a particular people out of the world.
The word world is used to mean several things in scripture and many times it's used to mean "many of mankind"...
Here are verses that show clearly that world does not mean all men everywhere. In fact it's rare that "world" ever means that in scripture.
10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. 11 He came to his own,[b] and his own people[c] did not receive him John 1:10-11
Now watch this...if you believe in John 3:16 it means all people everywhere, then you have a huge problem when you get to verse 17..."17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him. "...For God did not send his Son into "all people everywhere"? Clearly that's not what world means there. So how do you say that world clearly means all people everywhere in verse 16 in light of verse 17...
31Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out. John 12:31...all people everywhere? NO
18 As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world. John 17:18....you sent me into all people everywhere? I sent them into all people everywhere? No...It's rare that John every uses that terminology...
24 Father, I desire that they also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world John 17:24...You loved me before the foundation of "all people everywhere"? No that is clearly not what this is saying.
Man is interpreting John 3:16 and other passages the way they want to, to make God sound like who they think He should be. They need to let the word speak for itself. John uses the word world 78 times in all of his writings. THere is only a possibility of it meaning all people everywhere as arminians interpret those verses in a total of 11 places out of 78. Going back to 1 John 2:2...AT LEAST 21 out of 23 times in John's epistle he uses the word world to mean something other than everyone in the world. How is it then that you must interpret it to mean everyone in the world here?
In fact the exact same phrase "whole world" is used in 1 John 5:19 and clearly does not mean all men everywhere..."19 We know that we are from God, and the whole world lies in the power of the evil one."...Clearly not everyone in the world lies in the power of satan.
Also in looking at 1 John 2:1 we see that Christ's advocacy is not universal, so how do we then say that His propitiation is? It doesn't fit within the context.
Letting the word simply speak for itself as well all like to say, does not mean read it quickly and say, "okay I get that. It's simply". It involves deep study to allow the word to speak for itself.
