Author	Thread: Why are there Two Books to the Bible?
Admin	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 20 Aug, 2012 05:22 PM Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Can anyone answer this mystery? Post Reply
View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 20 Aug, 2012 06:21 PM 66 Post Reply
candlelight46 View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 20 Aug, 2012 08:49 PM Natzarim, I think you have asked a great question. As I understand it the First Covenant includes several sections: The Torah which is the first 5 books of the Scriptures and contain the creation, the way of life, the covenant or promise G-d made with His people and instructions. The next is the chronology of the scriptures. The prophet who confirmed the way of life, their application and the things to come. The rest is the writings or the explanation of things of G-d. The New Covenant is the fulfillment of all that came before and the "way of life written on the hearts of the people of G-d. The promise became living in the Messiah, where the Word became flesh. And the New Covenant is the history and the witness of that flesh of the promised Messiah, living, breathing, loving sacrifice fulfilled. As you know G-d referred to a New Covenant in the First Covenant. There the two as I see it. Shalom, candle Post Reply
dljrn04 View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 05:25 AM Thank you Candle you are a light in this dark world. Post Reply
View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 07:40 AM There is an order to these "66 books", which comes from the Greek word "byblos" which has been transliterated to mean "books", was the word for the inside of the papyrus plant, of which the New Testament writing were on, hence, "the (papyrus) book.". Today the Bible retains that name because of its having began as a papyrus book. At first man did not comprehend that Abba would be adding to the collection of documents that have come to represent His eternal wisdom, which is comprised of Two Books of the Two Covenants. There are Two Books, the Old and New, so as to demonstrate Abba YaHUaH's (YHUH) eternal wisdom, which man could not comprehend at first. There are many different types of writings which make up these Two Books. In the Old, you have the documents called Torah or Word of Elohim [G-d], comprised of the Pentateuch or Law of Moshe/Moses. You have "the writings", called Kethuvim, and you have the documents of the Prophets, or Nevi'im. [Study up on this] In the New Testament, you have the gospels, the acts of the apostles, and the epistles, or letters, of the Natzarim, and then Yohanan's, or "John's" [in Anglicized Hebrew] "Revelation". The Holy Scripture is referred to as the Holy Scripture because it was written by those sanctified [made holy and thus demonstrated to be so, by their having been "set apart" by Abba YaHUaH (YHUH)] in both the Old Testament period and the New Testament period. Wisdom needs Two Parts in order for it to qualify as "pure eternal wisdom". This is why we see Two Trees in the Garden: The Tree of Life [those with Abba's predestined seed implanted into them, and The Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil [those who are left to serve Satan, as his seed, and Abba YaHUaH (YHUH) as vessels of wrath. In Satan's Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil, his wisdom is seen to be temporal, short-termed wisdom, and not true wisdom for it is not eternal, encompassing all things. Abba YaHUaH's (YHUH) wisdom, on the other hand is eternal, because it demonstrates both physical [short-termed] wisdom of the physical realm, and the ethereal or spiritual wisdom. [See James 3] Thus, what is thought to be a mere collection of 66 books, is in reality "a Compendium of Eternal Wisdom". We are to obey and study the teachings in both Testaments to make us wise! Jesus did not come to do away with the Law, on the contrary, He came as "the Messiah" [Ha'Mashiach] to enable all truly called of the Father, to be able to obey the Torah, not be lawless. An example of this would be, the writings of the Natzarim called "Mattityahu/Matthew" [Chapter 5], in which Yahusha/Jesus spoke of the law of Moses/Moshe, as contrasting the Laws of ancient Mesopotamia. The "Jews", which is a fictional term, and a construct of Babylon and the exile, were trying to implement a "new" system of laws [which now govern our land]. The Pharisees, today's "U.S. Senate" [lawyers], were telling the people that this strange mixture, is moral code, and Jesus went back to quote the Torah in saying: "Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them [the Pharisees] of old time [those wanting the Mesopotamia's Family of Law, which was a system which permitted those who 'oversaw the administering of the law' to enrich themselves, by the abuses of false oaths. aka "Merchant Law", "Lex Mercatoria" (Latin)] Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths: But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne: Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King. Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black. But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil." [5:33-37] Jesus/Yahusha was referring to obeying to Torah, not doing away with it. He was quoting Moshe/Moses, who had recorded Abba YaHUaH's (YHUH) Eternal wisdom of His Word/Torah being combined of Two, which is why we see Men who are of Abba's Tree of Life, know that their lives are predestined, and therefore we are to always keep our word, as Abba keeps His, trusting Him with the outcome. We are to demonstrate His Nature and Behavior, which is why the Torah told you that you are to "set the Sabbath aside as a time to rest". No, we are to obey every word of Elohim: "But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." [Mattiutyahu/Matthew 4:4] Yahusha/Jesus was referring to the New Testament and the Old Testament, and of how we which are true believers are to "partake" of His teachings, and the Torah also, which came out of the Mouth of God [Elohim]. Yahusha/Jesus is that "unleavened bread", or "Unpolluted Word of Abba YaHUaH (YHUH), which marvelously and mysteriously requires the anointing of the Holy Spirit, Ruach Ha-Kodesh, to comprehend it. If certain men are of Satan's natural seed, they will never comprehend, because they were not sanctified, and/or set apart to receive it: "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned." [I Qorinti'im/Corinthians 2:14] The Fall was permitted to give Satan his seed, with the mystery of the chosen of Abba YaHUaH (YHUH) to be called out of Satan's seed. There was no other way Satan could have been given his seed. He was permitted to cause the fall, wherein he took control of all of man,, but was unaware that the Father had His Seed hidden in earthen vessels, hence "treasure in earthen vessels". The Old Testament was written by the anointed ones, who are referred to by the Hebrew term, "bachiyr". The New Testament was written by the "called-out ones", who are referred to in it as the "eklektos". Together we are "The anointed ones - who are called out" of that which is profane, and belongs to Satan. Shalom Aleichem! [Peace be unto You!] Post Reply
candlelight46 View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 01:33 PM Thank you for a deeper explanation to your question. With all due respect to youI just have one exception to your thought. Using Greek interpretation to explain Hebrew thought brings a harshness to the Scriptures and a Hellenistic approach. When one tries to explain the order of G-d to anyone through Hellenistic thought it changes the passion and the love affair, even the thought through the culture G-d brought through His Word. It was He who chose that culture of the Hebrew people not the Greeks. Their intellectual approach has changed the right division of the Scriptures and polluted the intent. Hebrew and Aramaic language is the base of the writings of the scribes, but that has been hidden. The plurality of our G-d, Eloheim, does not mean to rip the purposes of G-d away from His intent. My answer to your question is much simpler hopefully for most to understand. Are you Jewish by birth or a gentile. I did enjoy the rest of your writings. Thank you, Candle Post Reply
candlelight46 View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 01:53 PM Greetings, dljrn04 Thank you for your kind words. I noticed you also have much to share on many topics. Shalom to you, Candle Post Reply
View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 03:47 PM Well, Candle, it depends on which end of the candle the match is put to, as to how the light appears to shine. If one is from the ha-ibri thought, it would serve that the Helenistic perspective may not be as clear; but, and if on the other hand, if one is granted grace at the other end [the New Testament period, or Hellenistic period], then the light may appear to be focused on the latter portion of Abba's eternal wisdom dealing with the former. Shalom! Post Reply
candlelight46 View Profile History	Why are there Two Books to the Bible? Posted : 21 Aug, 2012 10:23 PM Great response. Post Reply