We all agreed that we are justified by faith. After justification through faith, we will want to be righteous before God, this is sanctification. How to be righteous? That is the problem. If we look into the NT only, a lot of questions remain unresolved, as Jesus only told us to obey the law. Without the Mosaic law, we cannot know what Jesus meant. Romans 2 told us righteousness can only be achieve through observing the law. It did not say 10 commandments but the law, all of them. The small laws are necessary to explain the 10 commandments.The law is all the books in OT, not j ust the Torah. Let have 2 examples.
1. Is tithing a must? In NT, we are only told to give to God what belong to God with a willing heart. Only in the small laws that it is known that the tithe belongs to God. One breaks the 10 commandments if not tithing.
2. Genetic engineering (cross species). Again, only in the small laws that we are told that such action is not correct and is against the 10 commandments.
Of course some of the laws is custom and some are meant for the past. This is told specifically in the law, therefore it is not for us because the law said so. We don't choose what law we should obey, God choose it for us.
I am asking a very simple question here, is it a sin if I am observing the law? If it is wrong if I observe the law show me verses that say so. Don't show verses that said we cannot save by observing the law, that is not my question. I believe in salvation through faith and SANCTIFICATION through law with the help of Holy Spirit. Since not all spirit is the Holy Spirit, we were told to test the spirit "Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world." 1 John 4:1. That's the problem with nowadays Christian, we do not test the spirit anymore. How do we test the spirit? Holy Spirit will tell us it is a sin to break the law for "Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness." 1 John 3:4. We cannot observe the law by ourselves, unless with the help of the Holy Spirit.
Ya. and Judaism accept John and 1 John as scripture. And Christian should consider whether these 2 books should be accepted as scripture. (Just being sarcastic)
"For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ."John 1:17.
and he want us to follow it as it is said
"Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness." 1 John 3:4. Salvation does not come by observing the law. It comes after salvation and as an urge of the Holy Spirit.
Moses covenant is the covenant of grace. Sin is not following the law, lawless is sin. No point where scripture telling people that is a sin to follow the law. Covenant of work is made with Adam.
I cannot see how you answer the question I posted in my last post:
"Last but not least: How you explain Luke 16:17: "And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail". And how you explain sin without law?" as I did not see any mentioning of Luke 16:17 in the answer by you or any attempt to define sin.
I also posted on what is wrong with your explanation on Matthew 5. Let me summarize for you:
1. according to you that the prophets only see into the future. However, 1 Corinthians 14:21 implies that book of prophets are part of the law. That is your mistake, separation of the prophets and the Law. The Mosaic law encompassed the book of prophets. The act of prophecy is not to let you to see into the future but more importantly for you to repent (Lamentations 2:14). You can check the meaning of prophets in Hebrew. Jonah predict the city of Nineveh shall be destroyed in 40 days, which never happened, but the prophecy is fulfilled. Why?
2. all is fulfilled--according to you happen with Jesus death and resurrection. When it said all is fulfilled, it means all the prophecies regarding Him including those in book of Daniel and the Revelation. Therefore, it occurs after the passing of heaven and earth when we are given the spiritual body.
3. Luke 24: It just said that Jesus is the one that is being prophesied by the Law and the prophets. It did not make the law being replaced.
4. If you say the law is no longer necessary, you are saying that "All your words are true; all your righteous laws are eternal." Psalm 119:160 is not true .
Others
5. Galatians 3, 430 years: Paul is simply reconfirming what was said in the OT. Covenant with Abraham is everlasting (Genesis 17:19), law of God given to Moses is everlasting. Therefore, the Law is not in contradictory with the covenant.
Also, I have pointed out that the differences in covenant with Moses and the new covenant is that the Law is written in our heart rather in documents.
I am still waiting for you to define sin and your explanation on "All your words are true; all your righteous laws are eternal." Psalm 119:160.
It is a mistake to say that the old covenant have fault as most people understand it. "For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:" seems to place the fault with the covenant, but when examine carefully, it uses the word them. The fault did not lies in the covenant but with the people who keep breaking it. So God amend the covenant by putting the laws into people heart.
God made two types of covenant with man. The first with Adam which is the covenant of work. Once Adam had sinned, God made a new covenant: covenant of Grace. By grace, God allowed Adam to live on through sacrifice. Because by law, Adam should have been dead. So by grace, covenant is made with Noah, Moses, etc. because by law, the wages of sin is death. The final covenant, the new covenant, was given when the problem of sin is solved by the coming of Christ.
Thanks for your comments. Shall be more careful with the choice of word.
To Chering,
Your understanding of covenant is close to mine but a bit different.
To Walter:
Answer to your question.
1. Jews or Gentiles?
Neither. New creation (Colossians 3:10-11)
2. So to WHOM was this Covenant given to and WHO was required to keep it?
The world. I am saying this because for you, law and the covenant is the same. Why I said the world. Paul said it is not important who inherit the law (to you it is equivalent to covenant) but whoever obey the law become righteous even the Gentiles (Romans 2:12-16).
Using your logic, even the new covenant is only for the Jews "This is the covenant I will make with the house of Israel, after that time, declares the Lord." Hebrews 8:10. It specifically mentioned house of Israel. We are the spiritual descendant of Abraham. Do you know David the king is not purely Jews?
Your understanding of the covenant is total different from mine. You hold that covenant is the law, I said it is different, because the initial covenant have fault, the law given by God is perfect. How can something be perfect at the same time faulty? Law of God existed before covenant with Moses. As it is everlasting, it must have existed before the covenant with Moses. Your understanding of the law is also different-you understand it as something written and it is written in the Torah. For me, Mosaic law is all the books in the OT (1 Corinthians 14:21).
Argument on grammar.
I understand what you said. You put a limit on the verse commandments on the sermon of the mount. For me, there is no limit to God's word. When you say commandments, you limited it to Jesus. For me Jesus is God, and there is no other commandments he could means but God's (that's why Jesus did not mention any commandments because there is only 2, commandments of God and commandments of man and he cannot meant commandments of man). What is the commandments of God? That is the very first word God commanded to the very last.
To remind you how your argument base on grammar alone had miss the original meaning in Matthew 5 :
You say that the prophet teachings is not part of the law.
you say to law shall pass away when all is fulfilled, yet you fail to define when does all is fulfilled happen.
Last but not least: How you explain Luke 16:17: "And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail". And how you explain sin without law?
