Genitive theou of God singular theon of Gods plural
Dative theo to or for God singular theis to or for Gods plural
Accusative theon God singular theous God
Vocative theos or thee God singular theoi Gods
John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God"
En arxe en o logos, kai o logos en pros ton theon, kai theos en o logo. (Litterally, and God was the Word.)
As you can see from the above, the root word "the", (th)eta (e)psilon has two different endings. theos, theon. The different endings account for their position in the sentence. This is not talking about 2 different people, nor two different Gods.
If I say, "The Lord saw Spot". "Lord" is the subject of the sentence.
If I say, "Spot saw the Lord". "Lord now gets a different ending in the Greek to show a different location in the sentence. It does not mean I'm talking about a different Lord.
If I say, "Spot saw the cat run after the Lord", I have another ending.
We all had, at least the older ones in our little group, had that wonderful experience of English Grammar Class. Take a deep breath, and wait before you run away screaming. This is good stuff.
This is the declension of the noun "Lord", in the Greek language.
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Nominative kurios Lord singular kurioi plural Lords
Genitive kuriou of the Lord singular kuriwn of Lords
Dative kuriw to or for the Lord singular kuriois to or for the Lords
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 7 Dec, 2015 08:41 PM
"Let this mind be in your which was also in Christ Jesus, who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, but made Himself of no reputation, taking on the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross. Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." Philippians 2:5-11
When it says, "who, being in the form of God", in the English, it is a translation of the Greed text which actually means, "who, never ceasing to exist in the form of God." Christ, while God, (John 1:1), emptied Himself and took on the flesh of a man, yet never ceased to exist as God.
When I showed the text of Revelation Chapter 1 earlier, I thought it was clear that the text says The Alpha & Omega, Beginning & End, The Almighty, First & Last, He Who lives, was dead and is alive forevermore is all the same person: The One who was speaking to John.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 7 Dec, 2015 08:24 PM
Perhaps I wasn't sufficiently clear.
John 1:1-3 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him, nothing was made that was made."
The Word, God, who was with God, made all things. Nothing was made without the Word.
John 1:14-15 "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth." John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, "This is He of whom I said, 'He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.'"
The Word, God, took on flesh as a man so He could live on earth, and we saw Him on earth. And John the Baptist announced the coming of the Word who took on flesh.
John 1:29 "The next day John saw Jesus coming towards him, and said, "Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!"
John the Baptizer identified the Word, God, who took on flesh, as the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 10:41 PM
Thanks Hank, for taking time to confirm Christ's role as the only legitimate go between between God and man, as He who was with God, and was God, and took on flesh, and became the sacrificial Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world, without which, we could not enter into the presence of Almighty God. John 1:1,2,14,29 Hebrews 4:14-16
"I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End," says the Lord, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty." I, John, both your brother and companion in the tribulation and kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was on the island that is called Patmos for the word of God and for the testimony of Jesus Christ. I was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day, and I heard behind me a loud voice, as of a trumpet, saying, "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last," and, "What you see, write in a book and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia: to E, S, P, T, S, P, L." Then I turned to see the voice that spoke with me. And having turned I saw seven golden lampstands, and in the midst of the seven lampstands One like the Son of Man, ... . And when I saw Him, I fell at His feet as dead. But He laid His right hand on me, saying to me, "Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. I am He who lives, and was dead and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen." Revelation 1:8-17.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 06:07 PM
The one and only type of divorce that Jesus says is legitimate is the divorce that Joseph contemplated when Mary was pregnant with Jesus. They were married under Jewish law, but had not consummated the marriage. The Jews had the practice of starting the marriage, beginning the betrothal period, where they were considered husband and wife, but did not consummate the marriage until a year had passed. Therefore Joseph was allowed to divorce Mary, marry another woman, and not commit adultery under Jewish law, but only because the marriage was not consummated. However God gave Joseph assurance of Mary's sexual purity in the matter, and after Christ was born, Joseph and Mary consummated the marriage.
Bottom line? Jesus forbids all other divorce, (every marriage which is consummated), and says that marrying another after consummation of the marriage is to commit adultery (moxitai). This applies to every divorce except the one where the woman has committed porneia, and the husband obtains the divorce for that reason. Jesus very purposefully differentiated between porneia (sexual immorality) prior to consummation of the marriage, and moxitai (marital adultery).
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:55 PM
Matthew 19:3-12 (Matthew was written to the Jews)
(In the Greek New Testament this is all one paragraph. It is not several paragraphs as suggested by English translations. Jesus only offers one exception as acceptable, and rejects all other divorces for all other reasons. Christ specifically states that the standard Moses used was a false standard which ignored the reality of the one flesh union, ignored God's original intent, and only came about because of sin.
Before I go any further, and just to be on the safe side, anyone and everyone who reads this needs to understand that Jesus Christ is Almighty God (John chapter 1, Revelation chapter 1) who took on flesh for the express purpose of dying for the sin of mankind. Moses is not the equal of Jesus. Moses serves Jesus. God in the flesh on earth said Moses was wrong. It is not Moses' standards which must be met, but the standards of Almighty God.
(Compare with Mark 10:1-12 (written to the Romans) (also one paragraph in the Greek language) and notice Christ speaks with the disciples after they enter the house, and Christ mentions no exception in this passage written for the Romans.)
(Also see Luke 16:18 (written to the Greeks) and also containing no exception.)
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:39 PM
Matthew 19:9-12 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except it be for sexual immorality (porneia), and marries another, commits (marital) adultery (moxitai); and whoever divorces her who is divorces commits (marital) adultery (moxitai)." His disciples said to Him, "If such is the case of the man with his wife it is better not to marry." But He said to them, "All cannot accept this saying, but only those to whom it has been given: For there are eunuchs who were born thus from their mother's womb, and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He who is able to accept it, let him accept it."
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:32 PM
Did Jesus Christ reject the practices of Moses related to allowing divorce; and say there is only one legitimate reason which allows a person to obtain a divorce, marry another, and not commit adultery?
a) yes b) no
Matthew 19:3-8 "The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?" And He answered and said to them, "Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate." They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?" He said to them, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so."
Someone asked about any legitimate reason for divorce and remarriage.
Posted : 19 Nov, 2015 01:45 PM
From the article:
"So Jesus condemns caual divorce and remarriage by explaining, not overturning, Moses' Law."
Jesus never used the word casual. To God, no divorce is casual. He used the original intent explanation to explain why all divorce of consummated marriages are prohibited (the exception in Matthew 19 relates solely to an unconsummated marriage because of the unique marriage rituals of the Jews). The original intent explanation contains consummation of the marriage, and divorce in the case of all consummated marriages is forbidden by Christ.
I have an appointment shortly. I will finish retyping the rest of my lengthy reply this into these nice boxes later.
Take a deep breath, and wait before you run away screaming. This is good stuff.