Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:32 PM
Did Jesus Christ reject the practices of Moses related to allowing divorce; and say there is only one legitimate reason which allows a person to obtain a divorce, marry another, and not commit adultery?
a) yes b) no
Matthew 19:3-8 "The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?" And He answered and said to them, "Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate." They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?" He said to them, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so."
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 8 Dec, 2015 08:02 PM
1. Pejorative words and comments are not appropriate to a discussion of the word.
2. There is only 1 God. The God of Israel, the God of John 1:1. Almighty God. The God of the Great Shema There will never be another.
Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen; that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. I, even I, am the Lord; and besides me there is no saviour." Isaiah 43:10-11
3. Speaking of the Great Shema. "Hear O Israel, the Lord thy God, the Lord is One." In Hebrew there is singular, dual, and plural (3 or more).
Shema Yisrael Adonai Eloheinu, Adonai Echad. The plural (3 or more) word Eloheinu (God) is ONE. Three in One.
Shema Yisrael Adonai (the Lord) Eloheinu (your plural God), Adonai (the Lord) is One.
4. Any reference to God in Revelation 1 is by definition a reference to Almighty God, as He is the only God. There are no other Gods. (Isaiah 43:10). No God was formed before Almighty God, and no God was formed after Almighty God. There is One God, the God of John 1:1-3, 14, 29 and Revelation Chapter 1 and Isaiah 9:6, and Genesis 1:1.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 9 Dec, 2015 09:12 AM
Shared ~ Pejorative words and comments are not appropriate to a discussion of the word.
pejorative
ADJECTIVE
1. expressing contempt or disapproval: ""permissiveness" is used almost universally as a pejorative term" synonyms: disparaging � derogatory � denigratory � deprecatory � defamatory � slanderous � libelous � abusive � insulting � slighting � bitchy
NOUN
1. a word expressing contempt or disapproval.
Sourced ~ Oxford Dictionaries
*** I Agree! I�ve learned it is the spirit of anti Christ when one is trying to Fellowship, Edify and Admonish. I have been taught in 1st John is a simple Scriptural test to know a child of God from a child of the devil. It focuses on present tense behavior and not just a testimony of a past conversion experience.
� If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.� 1 John 1:9
� And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.� 1 John 2:3-4
� In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.� 1 John 3:10
*** Now getting back to GIMF�s OP Topic of discussion. Is this type of destructive behavior and or abuse towards a spouse and or person Biblical grounds for divorce ???
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 9 Dec, 2015 07:23 PM
Judaism 101
The Great Shema
jewfaq.org./shemarer.htm
Please also note: Guide to Transliteration
jewfaq.org/traslitguide.htm
What Is the Shema?
melohagoyim.org/index.php/faq-s/26-what-is-the-shema (goyim means gentile)
Whether you translate it into English as Elohim (Elohiym) or Eluheinu, it is PLURAL. Both have been used by the Jews to represent the Hebrew. That is the point to be taken with regard to basic Hebrew language, that the word is in the plural form. The singular form is El, and it commonly used in a descriptive manner, such at Bethel, meaning, the house of God. Or El Shaddai which is translated, God Almighty. The plural God (Elohim/Eluheinu) is One God. There is only One of Him. It is a plural person singular being.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 9 Dec, 2015 07:38 PM
Mistyped the 1st link. it should read:
jewfaq.org/shemref.htm
Jewish frequently asked questions Shema reference
And since I have room, picture an egg. 3 parts, 1 egg. If you separate the parts, you don't have 3 eggs, you still have one. The Egg Shell, The Egg White, and The Egg Yolk. The shell is like the Father, which encompasses all. The white is like the Spirit of God, which is everywhere, and oozes all over everything. The yolk is like the Son which comes forth from the Father and was broken for the sin of mankind. 1 egg. 3 distinct parts, which are necessary to have the whole, and each with a specialized function.
Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
Posted : 9 Dec, 2015 10:18 PM
Please tell us about the person(s) referred to in Ps 2:12, is the person human or divine? Does the verse refer to more than one person? If so, please differentiate between how ever many are in that verse. How can we kiss that person? How do we put our trust in that person?
