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really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 20 Nov, 2014 04:10 PM

Thank you Transformed for your observation: " to see how Mercy and compassion is what we are to give, anything else is HIS job ."



And I might also add that it is only by allowing the Spirit of God to work in us that we are able to show mercy and compassion to others..



Blessings,

Paul

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 17 Nov, 2014 05:09 PM

I'm sorry, here4us, as I have said previously and now say again, YOUR POSTINGS MAKE NO SENSE. The ability to read Greek does not make one a scholar nor does it automatically give one discernment to rightfully interpret the Word of God. And you have done neither.



here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 16 Nov, 2014 07:31 PM

I'm sorry, here4us, but your posting makes no sense. The ability to read Greek does not make one a scholar nor does it automatically give one discernment to rightfully interpret the Word of God. And you have done neither.



here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).

really_54

View Profile
Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 16 Nov, 2014 10:51 AM

here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 14 Nov, 2014 07:03 PM

Singer4U says, �Hereforus message is plain and clear� Singer, your support of here4us erroneous teaching does not suddenly give it any credibility. Nothing has changed.



I'm sorry, here4us, but your posting makes no sense. The ability to read Greek does not make one a scholar nor does it automatically give one discernment to rightfully interpret the Word of God. And you have done neither.



here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 5 Nov, 2014 07:17 PM

Singer4U says, �Hereforus message is plain and clear� Singer, your support of here4us erroneous teaching does not not suddenly give it any credibility. Nothing has changed.



I'm sorry, here4us, but your posting makes no sense. The ability to read Greek does not make one a scholar nor does it automatically give one discernment to rightfully interpret the Word of God. And you have done neither.



here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 30 Aug, 2014 09:25 AM

I'm sorry, here4us, but your posting makes no sense. The ability to read Greek does not make one a scholar nor does it automatically give one discernment to rightfully interpret the Word of God. And you have done neither.



here4us, you said, "Thus for a man, Umbilical divorce is for any reason except fornication, where for the woman is for any reason except death of her husband (the law of man)." You have erred in this statement, misinterpreting Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 as if these scriptures apply to men only. When it comes to the sins of fornication and adultery in marriage, the commands of God apply to men and women equally. There is no gender difference, for the two have become "one flesh". When either the husband or wife commit fornication/adultery, they have violated Matthew 5:32, and the innocent party is free to remarry.



Please note the scriptures below how God's commands apply to men and women equally:



"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband" (1 Corinthians 7:2).



"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28).



"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication. That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour" (1 Thessalonians 4:3-4).



"Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband" (1 Corinthians 7:3).



"The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." (1 Corinthians 7:4).





Blessings,

Paul

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 25 Aug, 2014 04:21 PM

Biglion 44, you continue to defend yourself and others while ignoring God's command to husbands. We are not talking about Jezebel or Lot's wife here, or Ananias and Sapphira, but God's command to husbands:



"Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her" (Ephesians 5:25).



Jesus laid down His life for us, though we, as unbelievers, did not love Him. We did not deserve such love, but God loved us anyways despite our rebelliousness to His ways. That is how we are to love our wives. Whether they are submissive or rebellious, God commands the man to love his wife the same way as Christ loved us.



The Bible also says, "Husbands, love your wives and do not be bitter toward them" (Colossians 3:19). It is easy for a man to be bitter towards his wife. I understand where you are coming from. But God commands us not to be bitter toward them.



If we husbands would seek to be gentle like Christ, I do not believe we would be hearing as many complaints about unsubmissive wives.



Blessings,

Paul

really_54

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Have you been CONDEMMNED by others as having an "UNBIBLICAL DIVORCE" ?
Posted : 25 Aug, 2014 07:16 AM

Biglion 44, you continue to defend yourself and others while ignoring God's command to husbands. We are not talking about Jezebel or Lot's wife here, or Ananias and Sapphira, but God's command to husbands:



"Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her" (Ephesians 5:25).



Jesus laid down His life for us, though we, as unbelievers, did not love Him. We did not deserve such love, but God loved us anyways despite our rebelliousness to His ways. That is how we are to love our wives. Whether they are submissive or rebellious, God commands the man to love his wife the same way as Christ loved us.



The Bible also says, "Husbands, love your wives and do not be bitter toward them" (Colossians 3:19). It is easy for a man to be bitter towards his wife. I understand where you are coming from. But God commands us not to be bitter toward them.



If we husbands would seek to be gentle like Christ, I do not believe we would be hearing as many complaints about unsubmissive wives.



Blessings,

Paul

really_54

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DOES GOD STILL DO MIRACLES TODAY?
Posted : 24 Aug, 2014 07:47 PM

Thank you hubbarddebra99 for sharing the miracle that God did for your daughter.



Blessings,

Paul

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